Comment by AnthonyMouse
Comment by AnthonyMouse a day ago
Suppose that every single person in society receives the same compensation and has the same wealth, i.e. there is perfect equality.
Society produces housing and other necessities and people consume them in some amount and then have what's left as disposable income to spend on whatever they like, e.g. for going on dates.
Then a law is passed prohibiting the construction of housing with more than two stories. Building ten housing units on ten lots with ten foundations requires more labor than constructing ten units all on the same lot, so the price of housing increases, people have to spend more on housing and have less money left to buy flowers and some people quit their jobs at the flower shop to go pour concrete (while still getting paid exactly the same amount as before).
There is zero change in inequality but the cost of something has gone up and people have to eat it by getting less of something else.
How is this related to Baumol?
Baumol does not describe general inflation. It specifically describes when prices go up in some sectors because of an increase in productivity in another sector.
Baumol is also rooted in the concept of price elasticity, which in your contrived example seems not to exist.