Comment by murderfs

Comment by murderfs 12 hours ago

12 replies

https://guidetogrammar.org/grammar/twain.htm

  For example, in Year 1 that useless letter "c" would be dropped to be replased either by "k" or "s", and likewise "x" would no longer be part of the alphabet.

  The only kase in which "c" would be retained would be the "ch" formation, which will be dealt with later.

  Year 2 might reform "w" spelling, so that "which" and "one" would take the same konsonant, wile Year 3 might well abolish "y" replasing it with "i" and iear 4 might fiks the "g/j" anomali wonse and for all.

  Jenerally, then, the improvement would kontinue iear bai iear with iear 5 doing awai with useless double konsonants, and iears 6-12 or so modifaiing vowlz and the rimeining voist and unvoist konsonants.

  Bai iear 15 or sou, it wud fainali bi posibl tu meik ius ov thi ridandant letez "c", "y" and "x" -- bai now jast a memori in the maindz ov ould doderez -- tu riplais "ch", "sh", and "th" rispektivli.

  Fainali, xen, aafte sam 20 iers ov orxogrefkl riform, wi wud hev a lojikl, kohirnt speling in ius xrewawt xe Ingliy-spiking werld.
SamBam 12 hours ago

> fiks the "g/j" anomali wonse and for all

But we'd still be arguing about how to pronounce "ᵹif"

the_lucifer 12 hours ago

I remember a version which ends with how we'll end up speaking German.

mixmastamyk 12 hours ago

Recommend X for the ‘sh’ sound, as it is pronounced that way in languages like Portuguese. Y is a common typographical substitute for theta/thorn, as in “ye olde shoppe.”

  • normie3000 8 hours ago

    Or X -> ch, as in Greek, and footballers called Xavi?

    • darkwater 5 hours ago

      Xavi is catalan (shorter form of the name Xavier) and in Catalan "x" has exactly the "sh" sound. To get the "ch" sound you need to use "tx". And yes, most people - even natives - pronounce Xavi badly, due to Castillan influence on Catalan, and the lack of the "sh" sound in Castillan.

      • normie3000 4 hours ago

        > most people - even natives - pronounce Xavi badly, due to...the lack of the "sh" sound in Castillan

        Catalans seem to pronounce "caixa" fine, so I think they _could_ say "Shabi"... But this does back up your larger point about "x" -> "sh" in Catalan.

        • darkwater 4 hours ago

          Yes Catalans haver no problem with the "x" :) but it's just with the name that is mispronounced due to the Castillan overlap. I think that "caixa" with the "i" before the "x" makes it easier also for Castillans (although it's funny to hear them pronounce it). There is also the fact that both speakers have serious issues with words starting with "s" + consonant, so my theory is that "shavi" is also affected, while "chavi" is far easier.

    • int_19h 2 hours ago

      There's no /x/ phoneme in modern English, so it's unneeded in English spelling.

pmcarlton 10 hours ago

The nice thing about this passage is it reflects the extent of Twain's non-rhotic dialect -- he keeps the R in "year"/"years", "orthographical", and "world" but drops it in "after", "letters", and "dodderers". So only dropped in final unstressed syllables of multi-syllable words.

bmacho 4 hours ago

I'm convinced that this is Just The Right Thing To Do. Like ridiculously strong benefits, and practically no drawbacks at all.