Comment by skissane

Comment by skissane 5 days ago

10 replies

> So to conclude that there are more reals than naturals, the classical mathematical argument is:

> a) There are more functions N to Bool than naturals.

> b) There are as many reals as functions from N to Bool.

> Now, we of course agree the mistake is in b) not in a).

Given certain foundations, (a) is false. For example, in the Russian constructivist school (as in Andrey Markov Jr), functions only exist if they are computable, and there are only countably many computable functions from N to Bool. More generally, viewing functions as sets, if you sufficiently restrict the axiom schema of separation/specification, then only countably many sets encoding functions N-to-Bool exist, rendering (a) false

IngoBlechschmid 5 days ago

Indeed, what you write is true from an external point of view; just note that within this flavor of constructive mathematics, the set of functions from N to Bool is uncountable again.

There is no paradox: Externally, there is an enumeration of all computable functions N -> Bool, but no such enumeration is computable.

  • skissane 5 days ago

    Is it internally uncountable in the strong sense that the system can actually prove the theorem “this set is uncountable”, or only in the weaker sense that it can’t prove the theorem “this set is countable”, but can’t prove its negation either?

    If the latter, what happens if you add to it the (admittedly non-constructive) axiom that the set in question is countable?

    • btilly 5 days ago

      It should be true in the stronger sense.

      Suppose that you've written down a function enumerate, that maps all natural numbers to functions that themselves map all natural numbers to booleans. We then can write down the following program.

          (defn unenumerated (n) (not ((enumerate n) n)))
      
      This function can be recognized as Cantor diagonalization, written out as a program.

      If enumerate actually works as advertised, then it can't ever find unenumerated. Because if (enumerate N) is unenumerated, then ((enumerate N) N) will hit infinite recursion and therefore doesn't return a boolean.

      This argument is, of course, just Cantor's diagonalization argument. From an enumeration, it produces something that can't be in that enumeration.

      • skissane 5 days ago

        > If enumerate actually works as advertised, then it can't ever find unenumerated. Because if (enumerate N) is unenumerated, then ((enumerate N) N) will hit infinite recursion and therefore doesn't return a boolean.

        Okay, but if we take the position that only non-halting (for all inputs) programs represent functions over N, if your program “unenumerated” never halts for some N, it doesn’t represent a function, so your argument isn’t a case of “using the enumeration of all functions to produce something which doesn’t belong to the enumeration”

        Obviously an enumeration of all computable functions isn’t itself computable. But if we consider Axiom CompFunc “if a function over N is computable then it exists” (so this axiom guarantees the existence of all computable functions, but is silent on whether any non-computable functions exist) and then we consider the additional Axiom CountReals “there exists a function from N to all functions over N”, then are those two axioms mutually inconsistent? I don’t think your argument, as given, directly addresses this question

gylterud 4 days ago

Bringing in computability from an external point of view is a mistake here. Markov had no issue with a. He would only disagree with b.