Comment by pron

Comment by pron 5 days ago

16 replies

> In what sense can a finite set exist and be finite when it is unfindable, unverifiable, and has unboundable size?

In the same sense that we could say that every computer program must either eventually terminate or never terminate without most people thinking there's a major philosophical problem here.

And by the way, the very same question can be (and has been) levelled at constructivism: in what sense does a result that would take longer than the lifetime of the universe to compute exist, as it is unfindable and unverifiable?

Look, I think that it is interesting to work with constructive axioms, but I don't think that humans philosophically reject non-constructive results. It's one thing to say that we can learn interesting things in constructive mathematics and another to say there's a fundamental problem with non-constructive mathematics.

> But formalism leads to having to accept conclusions that some of us don't like.

At least in Hilbert's sense, I don't think formalism says quite what you claim it says. He says that some mathematical statements or results apply to things we can see in the world and could be assigned meaning through, say, correspondence to physics. But other mathematical statements don't say anything about the physical world, and therefore the question of their "actual meaning" is not reason to reject them as long as they don't lead to "real" results (in the first class of statements) that contradict physical reality.

Formalism, therefore, doesn't require you to accept or reject any particular meaning that the second class of statements may or may not have. If a statement in the second class says that some set exists, you don't have to assign that "existence" any meaning beyond the formula itself.

zozbot234 5 days ago

> Look, I think that it is interesting to work with constructive axioms, but I don't think that humans philosophically reject non-constructive results.

I don't think the point of constructivism is to "philosophically reject non-constructive results". You can accept non-constructive results just fine as a constructivist, so long as they're consistently rephrased as negative statements, i.e. logical statements starting with "NOT ...". This is handy in some ways (you now know instantly what statements correspond to "direct" proofs that can be given a computational semantics and even be reused for all sorts of computer sciencey stuff) and not so handy in others (to some extent, it comes with a kind of denial about the inherently "dual" nature of the fragment of your constructive logic that contains all that negatively-phrased stuff). But these are matters of aesthetics and perceived elegance, more than philosophy.

The duality concern is one that some will want to address by moving even further to linear logics (since these are "dual" like classical logic but also allow for constructive statements) but of course that's yet another can of worms in its own right.

  • btilly 5 days ago

    When you talk about the point of constructivism, do you mean currently, or historically?

    For me, personally, the point of constructivism is to wind up talking about mathematics in a language that corresponds with what I want words to mean. I personally want mathematical existence to mean something that could be represented in an ideal computer. And existence in classical mathematics means something very different than that.

    But historically, the point of constructivism was to try to avoid paradoxes through careful reasoning. At least that is my understanding. You're welcome to read http://thatmarcusfamily.org/philosophy/Course_Websites/Readi... and decide if that is what Brouwer meant.

    Unfortunately for this historical motivation, Gödel proved that every classical mathematical proof can be mechanically transformed into a purely constructive proof, possibly of a much more carefully worded statement. With the result that if there is a contradiction within classical mathematics, there is also a contradiction within constructivism.

    Luckily it has been so long since our foundations of mathematics fell apart because of someone finding a contradiction, that we no longer worry about it. (Was the set of all sets that do not contain themselves the last such contradiction? I think it might have been.)

    • zozbot234 5 days ago

      You could argue that the early constructivists' notions of "paradoxes" included things such as "statements about the existence of things that we don't know how to explicitly construct, and that may be even impossible to explicitly construct in the general case". Under Gödel's argument, these statements (like other classical statements) become mere negative statements asserting the non-existence of anything that might contradict the aforementioned non-constructive objects. So, they're no longer "paradoxical" in that sense. Stated another way, decidability/computability (perhaps relative to some appropriate oracle, to fully account for the surprising strength of some loosely-"constructive" principles) is not quite the same concern as consistency. Of course, this was all stated in very fuzzy and imprecise terms to begin with (no real notion back then of what "decidable" and "computable" might mean), so there's that.

btilly 5 days ago

My understanding of how Hilbert meant it is summed up in this quote from him: "Mathematics is a game played according to certain simple rules with meaningless marks on paper." I think that in part because I read Constance Reid's excellent biography Hilbert! It traces in some detail his thinking over his life, and how he came to formalism. His thinking about the nature of existence was particularly interesting.

If you think that he meant something else, please find somewhere where he said something that didn't boil down to that.

As for what most people think about the philosophical implications, nobody should be expected to have any meaningful philosophical opinions about topics that they have not yet tried to think about. I know that I didn't.

After you've thought about it, you may well have a dramatically different opinion than I do. For example Gödel thought that mathematical existence was real, since mathematics exists in God's mind. This idea made it important to him to decide which set of axioms was right, where right means, "These are the axioms that God must have settled on, and that therefore exist in His mind." This lead to such ironies as the fact that after proving that the consistency of ZF implies the consistency of ZFC, he then concluded that that the construction was so unnatural that Choice couldn't be one of God's axioms!

I don't agree with Gödel. For a start, I don't believe that God exists. And after I thought about it more, I realized that what I want existence to mean, isn't what mathematicians mean when they say "exists". I'm willing to use language in their way when I'm talking to them. But I'm always aware that it doesn't mean what I want it to mean.

  • ConspiracyFact 2 days ago

    I thought it was generally understood that Hilbert didn’t literally believe that. Do you seriously believe that he believed it?

    • btilly a day ago

      What I said about Hilbert's belief was a quote by him. So of course I believe it.

      His full views were more complicated, and are already discussed elsewhere in this discussion.

      My statement about Gödel is not an exact quote, but fits what I've heard from every source on the topic. He was a very deeply religious genius.

  • pron 5 days ago

    I can't locate my Heijenoort right now, but here's a description from the Stanford Encyclopedia of Philosophy [1] (which points to Heijenoort):

    The analogy with physics is striking... In the second half of the 1920s, Hilbert replaced the consistency program with a conservativity program: Formalized mathematics was to be considered by analogy with theoretical physics. The ultimate justification for the theoretical part lies in its conservativity over “real” mathematics: whenever theoretical, “ideal” mathematics proves a “real” proposition, that proposition is also intuitively true. This justifies the use of transfinite mathematics: it is not only internally consistent, but it proves only true intuitive propositions (and indeed all, since a formalization of intuitive mathematics is part of the formalization of all mathematics).

    In 1926, Hilbert introduced a distinction between real and ideal formulas. This distinction was not present in 1922b and only hinted at in 1923. In the latter, Hilbert presents first a formal system of quantifier-free number theory about which he says that “The provable formulae we acquire in this way all have the character of the finite”

    In other words, Hilbert does not require assigning any sense of truth beyond the symbolic one to those mathematical statements that do not correspond to physical reality, but those statements that can correspond to physical reality (i.e. the "real formulas") must do so, and those "real formulas" are meaningfully true beyond the symbols.

    The earlier formalism (mathematics is just symbols) could no longer be justified after Gödel, as consistency was its main justification.

    If anything, I think it's constructivism that suffers from a philosophical issue in requiring meaning that isn't physically realisable -- unlike ultrafinitism, for example. Personally, I find both Hilbert's formalism and ultrafinitism more philosophically satisfying than constructivism, as they're both rooted in physical reality, whereas constructivism is based on "computation in principle" (but not in practice!).

    > As for what most people think about the philosophical implications, nobody should be expected to have any meaningful philosophical opinions about topics that they have not yet tried to think about

    I mean people who have thought about it.

    [1]: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/hilbert-program/

    • btilly 5 days ago

      I was responding to this statement of yours, "I don't think that humans philosophically reject non-constructive results."

      Some of the humans who have thought about it do reject them. Some of the humans who have thought about it don't reject them.

      Most humans, including most mathematicians, have never truly thought about it.

      • pron 5 days ago

        > Some of the humans who have thought about it do reject them.

        I think they reject them only if they misrepresent Hilbert's formalism, because formalism does not assign them any meaning of truth beyond the symbolic. It makes no statement that could be rejected: a mathematical theorem that proves a set "exists" does not necessarily make any claim about its "actual" existence (unlike, say, Platonism). You asked in what sense does such a set exist, and Hilbert would say, great question, which is why I don't claim there necessarily is any such sense.

        What those who reject Hilbert's formalism reject is the validity of a system of mathematics where only some but not all propositions are "externally" meaningful, but such a rejection, I think, can only be on aesthetic grounds, because, again, for Hilbert, all "valid" foundations must agree with physical reality when it comes to statements that could be assigned physical meaning. If ZFC led to any result that doesn't agree with physical reality, Hilbert would reject it, too. But it hasn't yet.