Comment by meindnoch

Comment by meindnoch 3 hours ago

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If we assume pi's digits to be uniformly random, then the expected offset for the first occurrence of a particular N-bit sequence is going to be ~2^N. (This can be proven using a Markov-chain argument. Also note: we're working in binary). So you've converted an N-bit value into an offset on the order of 2^N, which takes again N bits to represent.