phatfish 2 days ago

German speakers usually have very good English, but this is one of their tells.

  • lsecondario 2 days ago

    Another one I've noticed is using "I've" as a contraction in e.g. "I've a meeting to attend". Seems totally reasonable but for some reason native speakers just don't use it that way.

    • rottencupcakes 2 days ago

      I’ve is only used when there is a verb to follow and the have is part of the verb’s construction.

      As in “I’ve done it” or “I’ve seen it”

      It would not be used before a noun, in the context of ownership, as in “I have a meeting”

    • darrenf 2 days ago

      Wait, what? Englishman in my 50s here and I use phrases like that all the time — “I’ll be missing standup cos I’ve a GP appointment”, “leaving at lunchtime as I’ve a train to catch”, “gotta dash, I’ve chores to do”. No one’s ever said I sound German!

      • mpyne 2 days ago

        I think it's more fair to call it a distinguisher of American English vs. British English.

        Even just reading "I've a train to catch" gives a British accent in my mind.

        • timc3 a day ago

          A particular part of Britain as well. I have never used “I’ve” in that way ( I speak more RP than with an accent)

    • jamiek88 2 days ago

      Nah that’s just Americans. Brits and Aussies say it all the time. Not sure about Canadians.

    • [removed] 2 days ago
      [deleted]
  • bxparks 2 days ago

    Could also be French speakers. They would say "J'utilise le format .avif depuis quelques années." I think the "depuis" throws off the French speakers when they translate that literally as "since some years" instead of "for some years".

    Another common tell: I wake up in the morning in the US/Pacific time zone, and see the European writers on HN using "I have ran" instead of "I have run".

  • Grosvenor 2 days ago

    German speakers usually have very good English, but this is already one of their tells.

    Fixed that for you.