Comment by tptacek
There would need to be (1) an existing valid contract, (2) knowledge by the defendants of it, (3) intentional and unjustified inducements by the defendants to break it, followed by (4) an actual breach that (5) caused damages.
Doesn't seem like that would fit here.
This seems like more of an ethical dilemma than a legal one.
> There would need to be (1) an existing valid contract,
Your (1) is false. You can damage a business relationship that doesn’t involve a signed contract.
“Tortious interference with business relationships occurs where the tortfeasor intentionally acts to prevent someone from successfully establishing or maintaining business relationships with others.” https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tortious_interference