Comment by KomoD
> In this case, they have anonymous stats that they share with others and that, in some jurisdictions, could fall under 'selling user data'
Correction, they said personal data, which if you go by the EU's definition means "any information that relates to an identified or identifiable living individual".
Which wouldn't be "anonymous stats", and can you give an example of a jurisdiction where sharing "anonymous stats" would go under selling personal data?
And is "doesn't sell your data to advertisers" also too broad? Because they removed that part too.
There are many cases where "anonymous" data can be de-anonymized, mostly if the stats contain outliers or multiple small groups that can be combined to uniquely identify an individual. "Any information that relates to an identified or identifiable living individual" (emphasis mine) implies that if there exists a way to de-anonymize any individual in the dataset then the dataset is PII.