Comment by geysersam
If the assertion in the parent comment is correct "nobody is using this as a substitute to buying the book" why should the rights holders get paid?
If the assertion in the parent comment is correct "nobody is using this as a substitute to buying the book" why should the rights holders get paid?
The argument is meta used the book so the LLM can be considered a derivative work in some sense.
Repeat for every copyrighted work and you end up with publishers reasonably arguing meta would not be able to produce their LLM without copyrighted work, which they did not pay for.
It's an argument for the courts, of course.