Comment by dwohnitmok
Comment by dwohnitmok 3 days ago
Your comment to JoJoModding in Math Stackexchange is incorrect.
"That's because there are nonstandard models of PA which contain infinite natural numbers. So PA may be able to prove that it produces a proof, but can't prove that the proof is of finite length. And therefore it might not be a valid proof."
If PA proves "PA proves X" then PA can prove X. This is because the key observation is not that there are nonstandard models, but rather that the standard natural numbers model PA.
Therefore if PA proves "PA proves X", then there is in fact a standard, finite natural number that corresponds to the encoded proof of "PA proves X". That finite natural number can be used then to construct a proof of X in PA.
I haven't had the time to go through your argument in more detail, but it's important to note (because the natural language version of what you've presented is ambiguous) that you haven't shown "PA proves 'Provable(forall n, G(n))'" in which case it would be the case that in fact "PA proves 'forall n, G(n)'", but rather "PA proves 'forall n, Provable(G(n))'".
My logic is very rusty at this point, but if someone could give me an argument that you cannot move the 'Provable' outside the 'forall', I would really appreciate that, without making reference to Goodstein sequences. In other words, that in general for propositions 'P' it is not true that proving "forall n, Provable(P(n))" implies you can prove "Provable(forall n, P(n))".