Comment by griffzhowl
Comment by griffzhowl 4 days ago
> If for all n we can prove P(n), then `∀n P(n)` should be an acceptable proposition
But how can you prove that P(n) for all n without induction? Maybe I misinterpret what you're saying, or I'm naive about something in formal languages, but if we can prove P(n) for all n. then `∀n P(n)` just looks like a trivial transcription of the conclusion into different symbols.
I think the crux of the matter is that we accept inductive arguments as valid, and so we formalize it via the inductive axiom (of Peano arithmetic). i.e., we accept induction as a principle of mathematical reasoning, but we can't derive it from something else so we postualte it when we come around to doing formalizations. Maybe that's what you mean by it coming down to intuition, now that I reread it...
Poincaré has a nice discussion of induction in "On the nature of mathematical reasoning", reprinted in Benacerraf & Putnam Philosophy of Mathematics, where he explicates it as an infinite sequence of modus ponens steps, but irreducible to any more basic logical rule like the principle of (non-)contradiction
>> If for all n we can prove P(n), then `∀n P(n)` should be an acceptable proposition
> But how can you prove that P(n) for all n without induction?
Just to be clear to all readers, the axiom of COUNTABLE choice is uncontroversial. Nobody is disturbed by induction.
The issue it that when you allow UNCOUNTABLE choice - choices being made for all real numbers (in a non-algorithmic way, I believe - so not a simple formula) - there are some unpleasant consequences.