Comment by diggan
Yeah, I guess it kind of make sense the US has a somewhat different definition of terrorism that the rest of the world I suppose. I think in most jurisdictions I'm familiar with, the amount of victims isn't the consideration if it's "terrorism" or not, but rather if there is a objective to destabilize the state, gravely disturb public peace or provoke a state of error in a specific segment of the population. Basically, the purpose/objective takes a vital importance in seeing if something is terrorism or not.
But again, makes sense that the US would have different definition.
According to your given examples/definition, under which one would this act fall? Because it's very much not clear to me how they would apply, but to you it seems obvious, so please do explain.